AIRCRAFT-GENERAL-KNOWLEDGE

AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE - COMPLETE ANSWERS WITH OPTIONS

1. An aircraft that has been overstressed…

must be inspected by a qualified engineer before the next flight
must be inspected by the pilot in command and if no defect is found, he she will not be required to make an appropriate entry in the aircraft technical log.
must be inspected by at least two pilots licenced on the type, one of whom must be the pilot in command.
must be subjected to a duplicate inspected by two engineers before the next flight.

2. Aircraft maintenance carried out that does not concur with the maintenance schedule quoted in the certificate of airworthiness C of A, will…

not affect the validity of the C of A.
require a C of A renewal after the required maintenance has been completed and before the aeroplane is flown again
invalidate the C of A until the required maintenance is completed.
invalidate the previous certificate of release to service as the maintenance schedule will not have complied with it.

3. What is the maximum permissible reduction of RPM per magneto during the pre-flight magneto check?

500 rpm
1500 rpm
300 rpm
According to the flight manual

4. Electrical fuel pumps shall be switched on…

for take-off and landing.
for take-off.
in case of a malfunction of the mechanical pump.
according to the flight manual

5. The airspeed indicator of an aircraft has become unserviceable. The aircraft may only be operated when…

the pilot has sufficient practice in judging airspeed.
the airspeed indicator has been repaired
the airspeed information is transmitted by radio communication.
flying in the traffic pattern only.

6. What kind of damage will always cause an aircraft to lose its airworthiness?

Damage to… the skin.
the paint.
the canopy.
any supporting parts

7. Who has to certify the mass and balance report that can be found in the operations manual OM?

The manager of a maintenance company
The Federal Aviation Authority
Any competent person
A certified aviation maintenance company

8. The thickness of the wing is defined as the distance between the lower and the upper side of the wing at the…

thickest part of the wing
thinnest part of the wing.
most outer part of the wing.
most inner part of the wing.

9. How is referred to a tubular steel construction with a non self-supporting skin?

Grid construction
Half-shell construction
Shell construction
Honeycomb structure

10. A construction made of frames and straps with a supporting skin is called…

Grid construction.
Wood- or mixed construction.
Honeycomb structure.
Monocoque- or semi-monocoque construction

11. What are the major components of an aircrafts tail?

Steering wheel and pedals
Ailerons and elevator
Rudder and ailerons
Elevator and rudder

12. The sandwich structure consists of two…

thin layers and a light core material.
thick layers and a light core material.
thin layers and a heavy core material.
thick layers and a heavy core material (Note: This typically refers to thin face plates/skins with light core)

13. Which constructional elements give the wing its profile shape?

Spar
Ribs (Note: Ribs give profile shape)
Planking
Tip

14. The load factor n describes the relationship between…

lift and weight
thrust and drag.
weight and thrust.
drag and lift.

15. What is the maximum speed for flight maneuvers with full rudder deflection?

Vne, maximum permissible speed
Vb, maximum speed for strong wind gusts
Vfe, maximum speed with fully deployed flaps
Va, maneuvering speed

16. The fuselage components of wooden and metal aircraft are…

planking, the frame and longitudinal straps.
ribs, the frame and the covering.
the covering, spars and formed parts.
longitudinal supports, ribs and spars

17. Which of the stated materials shows the highest strength?

Wood
Aluminium
Carbon fiber
Magnesium

18. Why should a pre-flight outside check include a visual inspection of the aircraft from a distance of at least 15 ft?

Foreign objects lying around are best recognized from this distance
The correct tyre pressure is best recognized from this distance
Deformations of the fuselage are best recognized from this distance
This is not necessary, because all important check points are listed in the flight manual anyway

19. A pilot enters a mountainous area at a high cruising speed and expects severe turbulence. What is his proper reaction?

No need for any special actions, because in this case an aircraft has to be loaded up to only 70 of its maximum weight
Airspeed must be reduced to the maneuvering speed according to the flight manual
Airspeed may not exceed the yellow arc on the speed indicator
Maintain control with minimum use of rudder.

20. A flight control surface that is aerodynamically balanced…

uses a balance weight aft of the hinge line.
has been modified with a trim tab.
uses a balance weight forward of the hinge line.
has a part of the control surface forward of the hinge line

21. What kind of hydraulic oil is used in aeroplane systems today?

Mineral oil
Synthetic oil
Vegetable oil
Bio-oil

22. Where is the brake system installed to slow the aircraft on ground?

Only on the nose gear
Only on the main gear
On the tail wheel
On the nose and main gear

23. When shall the operational reliability of the brake system be checked?

During the outside check walk around
Never, because the aircraft mechanic is responsible for any technical inspections and checks
Best during roll out after landing
During the taxi

24. What kind of control surface is connected with the nose wheel?

Aileron
Rudder
Elevator
Trim rudder

25. Tyre creep may be monitored by…

stretch marks on the tyre wall and possible tyre deflation.
two diametrically opposed yellow arrows painted on the tyre side wall.
alignment marks painted on and across the tyre wall and wheel flange
position and condition of the inflation valve.

26. About how many axes does an aircraft move and how are these axes called?

3 vertical axis, lateral axis, longitudinal axis
3 x-axis, y-axis, z-axis
4 vertical axis, lateral axis, longitudinal axis, axis of speed
4 optical axis, imaginary axis, sagged axis, axis of evil

27. A movement around the longitudinal axis is primarily initiated by the…

ailerons
rudder.
elevator.
trim tab.

28. How are the flight controls on a small single-engine piston aircraft normally controlled and actuated?

Manually through rods and control cables
Power-assisted through hydraulic pumps or electric motors
Hydraulically through hydraulic pumps and actuators
Electrically through fly-by-wire

29. Control inputs are transmitted to the control surfaces of fixed-wing aircraft below 2000 kg 4410 lbs…

pneumatically.
mechanically by cables, wire ropes or control rods
hydraulically by high pressure pipes.
electronically

30. The rudder control lock on the control yoke should be set…

after starting the engine.
after takeoff for outside parking.
during pre-flight checks

31. What is the purpose of primary flight controls?

Primary flight controls are used by the pilot for the immediate control of pitch, roll and yaw of an Aircraft
Primary flight controls are used by the pilot to control all movements of an aircraft during all phases of flight
Primary flight controls improve the aircrafts handling characteristics and relieve the pilot from excessive control forces
Primary flight controls are needed to control the aircrafts horizontal and vertical flight path, its forward speed, and overall performance

32. What is the effect of pulling the control yoke or stick backwards?

The aircrafts tail will produce an increased downward force, causing the aircrafts nose to rise
The aircrafts tail will produce an increased downward force, causing the aircrafts nose to drop
The aircrafts tail will produce an increased upward force, causing the aircrafts nose to rise
The aircrafts tail will produce an decreased upward force, causing the aircrafts nose to drop

33. Which of the following options states all primary flight controls of an aircraft?

Elevator, rudder, aileron
Flaps, slats, speedbrakes
Elevator, rudder, aileron, trim tabs, high-lift wing devices, power controls
All movable parts on the aircraft which aid in controlling the aircraft

34. What is the purpose of the secondary flight controls?

To improve the performance characteristics of an aircraft and relieve the pilot of excessive control forces
To enable the pilot to control the aircrafts movements about its three axes.
To improve the turn characteristics of an aircraft in the low speed regime during approach and landing
To constitute a backup system for the primary flight controls

35. The trim wheel or lever in the cockpit is moved forward by the pilot. What effect does this action have on the trim tab and on the elevator?

The trim tab moves up, the elevator moves down
The trim tab moves up, the elevator moves up
The trim tab moves down, the elevator moves down
The trim tab moves down, the elevator moves up

36. When trimming an aircraft nose up, in which direction does the trim tab move?

It moves up
It moves down
Depends on CG position
In direction of rudder deflection

37. Trimming an aircraft nose up, in which direction does the trim tab move?

Down
Up
Either down or up, depending on weather the elevator is producing an upward or a downward force
The trim tab always moves in the direction of the rudder deflection

38. What is the purpose of the electrical pitot heat?

To avoid icing of the pitot tube
To avoid icing of the aneroid barometer
To avoid icing of the membrane within the speed indicator
To balance the temperature and density with increasing altitude.

39. What has to be considered during refueling?

Apply ground wires, turn on the main switch and magneto ignition
No open fires, obey smoking ban and apply ground cables
Refuel through a soaked rag and keep a fire extinguisher available
Check the fuel content of the tank with a torch and remove fire protection

40. What is the purpose of the tank ventilation?

To prevent underpressure caused by fuel consumption
To prevent fuel spillage during refueling on the filler plug
To prevent water disposal during parking
To distribute the fuel from one tank segment to the other during flight

41. In a fuel pump system, what has to be considered, in accordance with the respective manual, before switching to another tank?

Shut off ignition
Switch on carburettor heating
Switch on fuel pump
Switch on primer

42. When a fuel priming pump is used before starting an engine, the fuel is normally delivered directly to…

the induction manifold or inlet valve port
the combustion chamber.
the delivery shroud of the fuel injector manifold.
the carburettor float chamber.

43. What is the function of an idle cut-off valve in a piston engined aeroplane?

It controls engine slow-running via the carburettor idle jet
It changes fuel flow to the main jet from the idle jet when power is increased
It inhibits the fuel flow from a discharge nozzle in the carburettor when selected
It shuts down the engine automatically if the cylinder head temperature rises due to long periods at idle on the ground.

44. The mixture control regulates…

the fuel flow.
the air supply
the fuel tank content.
the butterfly valve throttle valve.

45. How can the best mixture setting according to the flight manual be reached?

By adding more fuel with the throttle
By adding more air with the mixture control
By reducing air with the mixture control
By reducing fuel flow with the mixture control

46. When shall a fuel inspection draining be conducted?

After landing, in order to remove condensation or contamination
After every refueling and before the first flight of the day
During every inspection
At latest during the pre-flight inspection before the first take-off, prior to engine start or taxi

47. The voltmeter provides an indication of…

the electric potential difference in a system in Volt V
the electric current in a system in Ampre A.
the system voltage in Ampre A.
the electric current in a system in Volt V.

48. What is the unit for voltage?

Ohm
Volt
Ampere
Watt

49. Two 12 volt 40 ampere-hour capacity batteries connected in series would result in a total capacity of…

40 ampere-hours at 24 volts
80 ampere-hours at 12 volts.
20 ampere-hours at 24 volts.
40 ampere-hours at 12 volts.

50. What are the consequences when the battery master switch is accidentally switched off during flight?

The ignition is interrupted and an engine with a magneto ignition will stop
Engine operation with a magneto ignition will not be influenced
The operational conditions of the radio equipment will not be influenced
The engine will experience a slight loss of power

51. Can electrically operated flaps be deployed when the generator has failed?

No, under no circumstances
Only if the magnetos produce sufficient power
Yes, if the battery is charged
Only if the master switch is turned off

52. What is the reason for static dischargers on aircraft?

To discharge static charging during flight
To eliminate electrical interferences during intensive radio traffic
To ensure grounding during refueling
To improve the quality of radio transmission in high altitudes

53. What is the most likely reason for the starter not turning when activated?

The generator is damaged
The magnetos are damaged
The magnetos are not switched on
The master switch is not turned on

54. Which flight instrument depending on construction can be supplied by the onboard power supply?

Altimeter
Magnetic compass
Airspeed indicator
Horizontal situation indicator

55. Electrically driven flight instruments are marked with…

56. Which cylinder arrangement is commonly used on small aircrafts and motor gliders?

In-line engine
Radial engine
Horizontally opposed engine
V-type engine

57. The crankshaft in a four stroke piston engine…

controls the clearance of the valves.
converts linear motion into reciprocating movement.
converts rotary motion into reciprocating movement.
converts a reciprocating movement into rotary motion

58. Which type of piston engine is most commonly used for low and medium power?

Diesel engine
Two-stroke engine
Four-stroke engine
Rotary engine

59. What is likely to be the cause if the engine runs unusually rough while checking the magnetos?

Starter is faulty
Short circuit on the ground cable
Sparking plug is defective
Ignition switch is faulty

60. The compression ratio of a piston engine is defined as the ratio of…

cylinder volume when the piston is at bottom dead centre BDC to the total cylinder volume.
cylinder volume with the piston at bottom dead centre BDC to cylinder volume with the piston at top dead centre TDC
total cylinder volume to the volume remaining above the piston when it is at top dead centre TDC.
total cylinder volume to the volume remaining below the piston when it is at top dead centre TDC.

61. What type of cylinder arrangement is usually used in engines for light aircraft?

A straight engine with hanging cylinders
A flat engine with opposing cylinders
A radial engine
A hanging or standing V-motor

62. What is the correct sequence of the piston movement in a four-stroke engine?

Intake - ignition - flush - exhaust
Injection - ignition - compression - exhaust
Intake - injection - ignition - exhaust
Intake - compression - ignition - exhaust

63. What is the purpose of the cylinder fins of a combustion engine?

Stiffening of the cylinder wall
Cylinder cooling heat dissipation
Protecting the cylinder wall from damages
Mass reduction.

64. Where does the condensation water converge in the tank?

At the lowest position
It floats on the fuel
It is mixed with the fuel
Near the cap of the tank

65. When should the drain procedure be carried out?

Once a week
Before each flight
Before the first flight of each day
Before each landing

66. The highest absorbtion of humidity in fuel can be observed in which situation?

Almost full tanks
Almost empty tanks
During parking on wet gras areas
During parking on cold aprons

67. What does the octane rating or fuel grade describe?

Anti-knock rating
Flame front speed
Combustion temperature
Ignition timing

68. Which colour does Avgas 100 LL have?

Green
Red
Blue
Yellow

69. What is the major task of a carburettor?

To produce an ignitable airfuel mixture
To provide additional fuel to cool the engine
To pump fuel from the tanks into the cylinder
To control the aircrafts speed through the throttle valve

70. A carburettor engine continues to run in idle with the butterfly throttle valve closed, because…

the carburettor has an independent idle run system
the throttle can never be totally closed.
the pilot has to adjust idle with the thrust lever.
an automatic injection system is provided for idle.

71. A result of carburettor icing is…

a reduction of engine power
an increase of engine power.
a dropping oil pressure.
a rising oil pressure.

72. Which actions shall be taken if the carburettor temperature gauge migrates into the yellow range?

Find cooler air layers
Lean the mixture
Enrich the mixture
Use the carburettor heat

73. In which phase of flight must the carburettor heating be switched off although carburettor icing might be expected?

During taxi
During climb
During cruise
During take-off

74. Under what circumstances is carburettor icing most likely to be expected?

During night flights
During high pressure weather situations in winter
With a wrong mixture setting
In high humidity and temperatures between -5C and 20C

75. What is the task of cooling fins on air-cooled engine cylinders?

Leading the airflow to parts designated to be cooled
Quick heat transfer to the surrounding air flow by expanding the surface
Cooling of the cylinder surrounding airflow and forwarding to hotter engine parts
Increasing the airflow thus improving cooling of cylinder parts

76. Cylinder head temperature indication relates to…

the critical cylinder
a random cylinder.
all Cylinders.
the average of all cylinders.

77. Aircraft engines are fitted with cowlings…

to protect persons in the vicinity of a running engine.
to contain damage in the event of an engine failure.
to ensure a smooth airflow meets the wing root leading edge at an optimal angle of attack.
to allow air to be ducted around the cylinder heads for cooling purposes and to reduce drag

78. Deflector plates are attached to an engine so that they…

preferably do not cause a temperature drop.
automatically regulate the temperature
produce ideal cooling for all cylinders.
cool the cylinders.

79. May fully synthetic oil in an engine be mixed with mineral oil?

No, under no circumstances
Yes, without any restrictions
According to the flight manual
After consulting with the aircraft or helicopter mechanic

80. Directly after engine start the oil pressure indication climbs beyond the green arc. This is an indication that…

the oil is better than necessary.
there is too much oil in the engine block.
the engine oil is too hot and developing bubbles.
the oil is still very cold viscous

81. What happens during oil filter clocking?

A bypass valve opens thus enabling the circulation to continue, debris will not be filtered
A bypass valve opens thus enabling the circulation to continue, debris will be filtered by an alternate filter
The oil circulation will end after 30 minutes so that a proper engine run will not be guaranteed
The oil circulation will end after 15 minutes so that a proper engine run will not be guaranteed

82. What are the correct measures, when the oil temperature reaches the red arc during climb?

Continue with reduced power
Continue with increased power
Stop climb until the oil temperature returns to normal
Continue with lean mixture

83. When a magneto is switched to OFF, the switch located in its primary circuit…

is closed and the high tension circuit is closed.
is opened, breaking circuit continuity
is opened and the circuit is grounded.
is closed and the circuit is grounded.

84. Piston engines of aircraft, touring motor gliders and helicopters have…

two electrically coupled ignition systems.
two independent ignition systems
one ignition system.
one or two ignition systems, depending on the type.

85. When the short circuit cable of the ignition system is broken, the engine…

will not start even with the ignition switch turned on.
runs roughly, since the spark plugs do not receive the full voltage.
continues to run
runs roughly, because the correct ignition timing cannot be maintained.

86. What is the purpose the magneto check before switching the engine off?

That the pilot becomes more confident with the ignition
To check if the magnetos are still correctly connected
There is no special reason for the short magneto check
The magneto check is practiced during flight training only

87. How do you call fuel mixtures with a high amount of fuel?

Lean
Rich
Full
Empty

88. During acceleration at a constant power setting in an aircraft with a fixed pitch propeller, the engine RPM will…

remain unchanged.
increase
decrease.
remain unchanged, but the propeller RPM will increase.

89. With increasing altitude the engine power of a carburettor engine decreases because the…

air temperature decreases.
air density decreases
air humidity decreases.
atmospheric pressure decreases.

90. With increasing altitude, the power of a carburettor engine…

increases.
decreases
remains constant.
first decreases, from 5000 ft on increases.

91. What causes a greater torque load?

A larger angle of incidence
A larger angle of attack
A higher engine power output
A lower engine power output

92. What is the direct result of a broken or congested cylinder fin of a piston engine?

Increase in fuel consumption
Overheating of the cylinder
Increase in rpm
Increase in oil consumption

93. An engine warm-up is required with combustion engines because…

otherwise the fuel consumption would be too high in flight.
otherwise the oil film will be cut.
vibrations of a cold engine may damage the aircraft.
maximum power can only be reached at the correct operating temperature

94. What happens when the maximum permissible engine speed rpm is exceeded?

The fuel supply will be interupted
The engine cowling will be torn away
The engine will be damaged, certain parts may even fail
Nothing happens if the rpm is not exceeded by more than 50 of the maximum permissible limit

95. Pre-ignition of the fuel-air mixture in a piston engine is usually associated with…

a designed interrupted ignition sequence during start-up when backfiring occurs.
rich mixtures and low cylinder head temperatures.
carbonised sparking plugs due to prolonged engine operation using overly rich mixtures
weak mixtures and high cylinder head temperatures.

96. If the appropriate manual or checklist is not available to deal with an engine fire during flight, the pilot should…

make a mayday call, slip the aircraft to keep the fumes away from the cabin, then attempt to extinguish the fire.
close the throttle, turn the fuel off and close the cabin air intake
close the throttle, switch off the ignition, then set up for a forced landing.
try and keep the engine running to suck the fire into the induction manifold.

97. High cylinder head temperatures can be reduced in flight by…

increasing power and airspeed to augment the cooling airflow around the engine.
closing the cowl flaps which will increase the cooling airflow over the engine.
enriching the fuel-air mixture to reduce combustion chamber temperature
climbing into colder air thus augmenting the cooling airflow over the engine.

Because those engines are highly heat-resistant
In order to gain altitude as quickly as possible
Because an interior cooling of the engine can be achieved with the extra fuel
Because an essentially larger power output can be achieved by the change in air-fuel mixture.

99. What is the correct procedure during a climb when the cylinder head temperature indicator is close to the maximum limit?

No measures are necessary as the outside air temperature decreases with increasing altitude
Continue the climb with reduced speed to relieve the engine
Level off and continue in a horizontal flight
Continue the climb with a higher speed or level off and continue in horizontal flight

100. Engine power rpm shall be kept low directly after engine start, because…

vibrations may destroy the tilt lever.
the engine may get thermally overstressed.
efficient lubrication is not immediately available
fuel consumption may be increased.

101. When shall the mixture be leaned?

At altitudes above 3000 ft MSL
At all altitudes with engine power below 75%
On long distances flights only
At altitudes above 5000 ft AGL

102. What could cause overheating of pistons, cylinders and valves?

Early ignition
Late ignition
Mixture too rich
Mixture too lean

103. Which of the following procedures will minimize noise after take-off?

Selecting max. pitch variable pitch propeller to gain altitude as quickly as possible
Flying at the best angle of glide and under consideration of a low power setting
Flying at the speed for best climb and avoiding turns during climb
Land as soon as possible.

104. How shall approaches be conducted to minimize noise?

Power-on approach as long as possible, small flap setting and gear down
Power-off approach, flaps and gear up
Power setting as low as possible, flaps retracted and gear up as long as practical
Medium power setting for approach

105. A Bourdon tube is suitable for the measurement of…

temperature.
weight.
pressure
speed.

106. In either a wet or a dry sump piston engine, the oil pressure sensor is located…

on the inlet side off the scavenge pump.
on the outlet side of the scavenge pump.
on the outlet side of the pressure pump
on the inlet side of the pressure pump.

107. What may be the reason for a drop in oil pressure with a steady oil temperature?

Carburettor icing
Inadequate mixture too lean
RPM setting too high
False indication

108. Which value can be read on the manifold pressure indication when the engine is not running?

The remaining air pressure within the cylinders after the last ignition
Air pressure overpressure of the charger chamber
The ambient air pressure at the location of the aircraft
The pressure between butterfly valve and cylinder valves.

109. When the engine is not running, the manifold pressure gauge indicates…

total pressure of the static and dynamic pressure.
differential pressure.
barometic pressure
ram pressure.

110. The purpose of the exhaust gas temperature EGT indicator is to monitor…

fuel temperature.
mixture adjustment
carburettor heating.
engine temperature.

111. What does the green arc on the cylinder head temperature CHT indicator scale stand for?

Danger temperature
Speed range for landing gear and speed brake operation
Normal operating temperature
Max. limits for speed, pressure and temperature

112. Which value can the pilot derive from the fuel flow gauge?

The volume of fuel used per time
The fuel pressure
The fuel quantity
The fuel temperature

113. The tachometer may be driven by…

a V-belt.
a flexible shaft
a drive belt.
a drive shaft.

114. How does the dynamic pressure on the aircraft change if the airspeed is doubled?

It is… doubled.
unchanged.
quadrupled
tripled.

115. The term static pressure is defined as pressure…

of undisturbed airflow
inside the airplane cabin.
resulting from orderly flow of air particles.
sensed by the pitot tube.

116. Which of the mentioned cockpit instruments is connected to the pitot tube?

Airspeed indicator
Altimeter
Navigational computer
Vertical speed indicator

117. What does the dynamic pressure depend on?

Air density and airflow speed squared
Air pressure and air temperature
Lift- and drag coefficient
Air density and lift coefficient

118. The Pitot static system is required to…

measure total and static air pressure
prevent icing of the Pitot tube.
correct the reading of the airspeed indicator to zero when the aircraft is static on the ground.
prevent potential static buildup on the aircraft.

119. Which pressure is sensed by the Pitot tube?

Total air pressure
Static air pressure
Dynamic air pressure
Cabin air pressure

120. What instrument is connected with the Pitot tube?

Airspeed indicator
Altimeter
Turn coordinator
Vertical speed indicator

121. Which of the following instruments show wrong indications when the static pressure ports of the aircraft are blocked?

Altimeter, vertical speed indicator, airspeed indicator
Airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator, turn bank indicator
Altimeter, tachometer, gyrocompass
Variometer, turn bank indicator, tachometer

122. The static ports of an airplane are blocked. Which instruments may show wrong indications?

Airspeed indicator, vertical ,speed indicator, slip indicator
Altimeter, slip indicator, direct-reading compass
Vertical speed indicator, altimeter, slip indicator
Altimeter, vertical speed indicator, airspeed indicator

123. The barometric altimeter is calibrated in accordance with…

the pressure flow of the isobars.
the standard atmosphere
the pressure flow of the isohypses.
the present atmospheric pressure.

124. QFE is the…

barometric pressure adjusted to sea level, using the international standard atmosphereISA.
barometric pressure at a reference datum, typically the runway threshold of an airfield
altitude above the reference pressure level 1013.25 hPa.
magnetic bearing to a station.

125. When do you have to set the scale of the altimeter?

Before every flight and during the flight
After every assembly of the glider
Before the first flight of a day
Before taking off into bad weather

126. Which is the purpose of the altimeter subscale?

To reference the altimeter reading to a predetermined level such as mean sea level, aerodrome level or pressure level 1013.25 hPa
To adjust the altimeter reading for non-standard temperatuure
To correct the altimeter reading for system errors
To set the reference level for the altitude decoder of the transponder

127. The altimeter scale of the barometric altimeter has to be set…

annually
monthly
before every flight and during a cross-country flight
before the beginning of any flight operation

128. The indication of the barometric altimeter is based on…

the preselected barometric pressure on the altimeter scale
mean seal level MSL.
the airfield elevation.
the respective height above ground.

129. In which unit is the QNH depicted?

hPa
Torr
FL
m

130. What difference in altitude is shown by an altimeter, if the reference pressure scale setting is changed from 1000 hPa to 1010 hPa?

80 m more than before
Values depending on QNH
Zero
80 m less than before

131. The altitemeters reference scale is set to airfield pressure QFE. What indication is shown during the flight?

Height above airfield
Airfield elevation
Pressure altitude
Altitude above MSL

132. A flight level is a…

pressure altitude
true altitude.
density altitude.
altitude above ground.

133. During a flight in colder-than-ISA air the indicated altitude is…

higher than the true altitude
lower than the true altitude.
eqal to the true altitude.
equal to the standard altitude.

134. During a flight in an air mass with a temperature equal to ISA, the indicated altitude is…

higher than the true altitude.
lower than the true altitude.
equal to the true altitude
equal to the standard atmosphere.

135. If the QNH of the departure aerodrome is preselected in the barometric altimeter scale, the altimeter indication will be…

the airfield elevation above MSL.
0 ft GND
no indication.
the pressure altitude.

136. Which instrument can be affected by the hysteresis error?

Vertical speed indicator
Tachometer
Altimeter
Direct reading compass

137. The measurement of altitude is based on the change of the…

total pressure.
static pressure
dynamic pressure.
differential pressure.

138. A barometric altimeter always shows the altitude above…

ground.
elevation.
mean sea level.
a preselected reference level

139. Which of the following options states the working principle of a vertical speed indicator?

Measuring the present static air pressure and comparing it to the static air pressure inside a reservoir
Total air pressure is measured and compared to static pressure
Static air pressure is measured and compared against a vacuum
Measuring the vertical acceleration through the displacement of a gimbal-mounted mass

140. A vertical speed indicator measures the difference between…

total pressure and static pressure.
dynamic pressure and total pressure.
instantaneous total pressure and previous total pressure.
instantaneous static pressure and previous static pressure

141. Calibrated airspeed CAS equals…

indicated airspeed IAS corrected for instrument and position error
true airspeed TAS corrected for wind.
equivalent airspeed EAS corrected for altitude.
ground speed GS corrected for instrument and position error.

142. At higher altitudes, true airspeed TAS tends to be higher than calibrated airspeed CAS. A rough estimate of the TAS can be obtained by…

adding 2% of the CAS for every 1000 ft altitude
subtracting 2% of the CAS for every 1000 ft altitude.
adding 10% of the CAS for every 1000 ft altitude.
subtracting 10% of the CAS for every 1000 m altitude.

143. Which answer explains the abbreviation IAS?

International Standard Atmosphere
Information Air Service
Indicated Air Speed
International Alphabet System.

144. Which of the following states the working principle of an airspeed indicator?

Total air pressure is measured and compared against static air pressure.
Static air pressure is measured and compared against a vacuum.
Dynamic air pressure is measured by the Pitot tube and converted into a speed indication by the airspeed indicator
Total air pressure is measured by the static ports and converted into a speed indication by the airspeed indicator

145. The speed scale of an airspeed indicator is colour coded. The green band represents…

the landing gear retraction range Vlo.
the flap extension range Vfe.
the caution range Vne.
the normal operating range Vno

146. The airspeed indicator is based on measuring…

the difference between total pressure and static pressure
static pressure alone.
total pressure alone.
the weather vane.

147. What is the meaning of the white arc on the airspeed indicator?

Speed range for extended flaps
Speed range in smooth air
Speed range in bumpy air
Speed range not to exceed

148. The speed range which shall not be flown during turbulence is marked on the airspeed indicator with a…

green arc.
yellow arc
white arc.
red arc.

149. Which answer describes the meaning of the red line of the airspeed indicator scale?

Maximum landing gear operating speed
Minimum speed brakes extended speed
Maximum never-exceed speed
Minimum speed for aerobatics

150. Equal magnetic poles…

attract each other.
repel each other
do not show a reaction.
reverse the polarity.

151. Which answer defines the term inclination?

The angle between magnetic and true north
The angle between the longitudinal axis of the aircraft and true north
The angle between the magnetic field lines of the earth and the horizontal plane
The deviation caused by electrical interference

152. The earths magnetic field is referenced to…

the magnetic north pole
the geographic north pole.
the equator.
the prime meridian.

153. A magnetic compass is subject to which of the following errors?

Variation, deviation, turning and acceleration errors
Inclination and declination
Declination, conjugation, turning and acceleration errors
Gravity and magnetism.

154. What is the purpose of the fluid in a compass?

Temperature compensation
Damping compass movements and achieving a smooth indication
Reduction of inclination
To improve compass display visibility

155. An aircraft in the northern hemisphere accelerates on a magnetic heading of 090. The indication of the direct reading compass…

indicates a greater heading
indicates a smaller heading.
remains constant.
indicates the opposite course.

156. An aircraft in the northern hemisphere accelerates on a magnetic heading of 270. Which reaction do you expect from the the magnetic compass indication?

An indication of approximately 300
An indication of approximately 240
An indication of approximately 270
An indication of approximately 090

157. Which instruments are so-called gyro instruments?

Airspeed indicator, magnetic compass
Bank indicator, radio compass
Pitch indicator, radio compass
Turn and bank indicator, artificial horizon

158. The gyro of a heading indicator continuously precesses during flight operations and should be regularly re-aligned with the magnetic compass…

when the wings are level during accelerated flight or slowing down.
when the wings are level in straight and level constant speed flight
during straight constant speed flight or constant speed climb or descent.
when the wings are level with all non-essential electrical loads switched off.

159. The apparent drift of a gyro equals…

15h x coslongitude.
13h x sinlatitude.
15h x sinlatitude (Note: Standard apparent drift formula)
15h x sinlatitude.

160. A directional gyro or heading indicator is susceptible to apparent drift which is caused by…

rotor speed instability.
internal friction.
inherent rigidity in space
Earth rotation about its own axis.

161. The bank angle of a 2-minutes circle depends on the…

TAS
IAS.
CAS.
Ground speed.

162. A rate of turn indicator provides information regarding the movement around the…

vertical axis of the aircraft
longitudinal axis of the aircraft.
lateral axis of the aircraft.
vertical and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft.

163. A turn and bank or turn and slip coordinator provides information regarding…

the rate of turn and coordination, i.e. slip or skid, of the turn
the rate of turn and bank angle of the aircraft.
the coordination of the turn and slip angle.
the pitch and bank angle of the aircraft.

164. The direction and the rate at which the airplane is turning around its vertical axis is indicated by the…

artificial horizon.
turn and bank indicator.
vertical speed indicator.
directional gyro

165. What is the time needed for a complete 360 turn with a rate of turn of 3 degrees?

3 min
2 min
12 s
4 min

166. What does the slip indicator show?

Apparent vertical
Vertical to horizon
Airplanes bank
Rate of turn

167. The artificial horizon belongs to the…

capsule instruments.
gyro instruments
engine monitoring instruments.
electrical systems.

168. Which of the following instruments has its axis of rotation vertical to the earths surface?

Turn bank indicator
Compass
Directional gyro
Artificial horizon

169. The artificial horizon…

will not change its position and the indication accuracy remains constant.
is built as pendulum so that it is sensitive to tilting motion and can indicate this without delay.
is half gimballed, movable around all three axis and will retain its position in space as long as there is no tilting motion
is half gimballed, movable around all three axis and will retain its position in space as long as there is no tilting motion.

170. Gyros suffer from what kinds of errors?

Hysteresis error
Gimbal errors
Acceleration errors
Deviation

171. The standard directional gyro…

is generally reliable for bank and pitch angles less than 60 degrees
is not reliable during inverted flight.
is reliable only when maintaining the max. permissible speed.
is reliable in all flight attitudes.

172. A precession error can occur with…

a magnetic compass.
an artificial horizon
a directional gyro.
a turn and bank indicator.

173. Which light colour advises the pilot to the condition immediate corrective action is required?

Red
Amber
Blue
Green.

174. What does the abbreviation ADI stand for?

Attitude Director Indicator
Advanced Directional Indicator
Attitude Deviation Indication
Aircraft De-Icing

175. A horizontal situation indicator HSI combines the information provided by…

the directional gyro and the VHF navigation receiver
the attitude indicator and the flight director.
the rate gyro and the slip indicator.
the directional gyro and the flight director.

176. The primary flight display PFD of an EFIS system may include which of the following information?

Attitude, heading, radial, track, approach course, flight director
Navigational information, heading and track, bearings, wind direction and speed.
Engine oil pressure and temperature, cylinder head temperature, exhaust gas temperature
ATC flight plan, active flight management system flight plan, communicatons

Navigational information, heading and track, bearings, wind, position
Attitude, indicated airspeed IAS, speed trend vector, altitude, vertical speed
Engine oil pressure and temperature, cylinder head temperature, exhaust gas temperature
ATC flight plan, communicatons with air traffic control ATC

178. In case of a leakage in the exhaust air heat exchanger, allowing carbon monoxide to enter the aircraft cabin, it…

may be identified by its strong smell.
may be identified because of its grey colour.
can only be detected by acetate odour.
cannot be detected because it is odourless and colourless