AIRCRAFT-GENERAL-KNOWLEDGE

AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

1. An aircraft that has been overstressed…

must be inspected by a qualified engineer before the next flight

2. Aircraft maintenance carried out that does not concur with the maintenance schedule quoted in the certificate of airworthiness C of A, will…

invalidate the C of A until the required maintenance is completed

3. What is the maximum permissible reduction of RPM per magneto during the pre-flight magneto check?

According to the flight manual

4. Electrical fuel pumps shall be switched on…

according to the flight manual

5. The airspeed indicator of an aircraft has become unserviceable. The aircraft may only be operated when…

the airspeed indicator has been repaired

6. What kind of damage will always cause an aircraft to lose its airworthiness?

Damage to any supporting parts

7. Who has to certify the mass and balance report that can be found in the operations manual OM?

A certified aviation maintenance company

8. The thickness of the wing is defined as the distance between the lower and the upper side of the wing at the…

thickest part of the wing

9. How is referred to a tubular steel construction with a non self-supporting skin?

Grid construction

10. A construction made of frames and straps with a supporting skin is called…

Monocoque- or semi-monocoque construction

11. What are the major components of an aircrafts tail?

Elevator and rudder

12. The sandwich structure consists of two…

thin layers and a light core material

13. Which constructional elements give the wing its profile shape?

Ribs

14. The load factor n describes the relationship between…

lift and weight

15. What is the maximum speed for flight maneuvers with full rudder deflection?

Va, maneuvering speed

16. The fuselage components of wooden and metal aircraft are…

longitudinal supports, ribs and spars

17. Which of the stated materials shows the highest strength?

Carbon fiber

18. Why should a pre-flight outside check include a visual inspection of the aircraft from a distance of at least 15 ft?

Deformations of the fuselage are best recognized from this distance

19. A pilot enters a mountainous area at a high cruising speed and expects severe turbulence. What is his proper reaction?

Airspeed must be reduced to the maneuvering speed according to the flight manual

20. A flight control surface that is aerodynamically balanced…

has a part of the control surface forward of the hinge line

21. What kind of hydraulic oil is used in aeroplane systems today?

Synthetic oil

22. Where is the brake system installed to slow the aircraft on ground?

On the main gear

23. When shall the operational reliability of the brake system be checked?

During the taxi

24. What kind of control surface is connected with the nose wheel?

Rudder

25. Tyre creep may be monitored by…

alignment marks painted on and across the tyre wall and wheel flange

26. About how many axes does an aircraft move and how are these axes called?

3; vertical axis, lateral axis, longitudinal axis

27. A movement around the longitudinal axis is primarily initiated by the…

ailerons

28. How are the flight controls on a small single-engine piston aircraft normally controlled and actuated?

Manually through rods and control cables

29. Control inputs are transmitted to the control surfaces of fixed-wing aircraft below 2000 kg 4410 lbs…

mechanically by cables, wire ropes or control rods

30. The rudder control lock on the control yoke should be set…

after takeoff for outside parking

31. What is the purpose of primary flight controls?

Primary flight controls are used by the pilot for the immediate control of pitch, roll and yaw of an Aircraft

32. What is the effect of pulling the control yoke or stick backwards?

The aircrafts tail will produce an increased downward force, causing the aircrafts nose to rise

33. Which of the following options states all primary flight controls of an aircraft?

Elevator, rudder, aileron

34. What is the purpose of the secondary flight controls?

To improve the performance characteristics of an aircraft and relieve the pilot of excessive control forces

35. The trim wheel or lever in the cockpit is moved forward by the pilot. What effect does this action have on the trim tab and on the elevator?

The trim tab moves up, the elevator moves down (Note: Forward wheel = Nose Down command. To push nose down, elevator must go DOWN. To force elevator down, trim tab must move UP.)

36. When trimming an aircraft nose up, in which direction does the trim tab move?

It moves down

37. Trimming an aircraft nose up, in which direction does the trim tab move?

Down (Correction: Source file said “Up” here but “Down” in Q36. The correct physics answer is Down.)

38. What is the purpose of the electrical pitot heat?

To avoid icing of the pitot tube

39. What has to be considered during refueling?

No open fires, obey smoking ban and apply ground cables

40. What is the purpose of the tank ventilation?

To prevent underpressure caused by fuel consumption

41. In a fuel pump system, what has to be considered, in accordance with the respective manual, before switching to another tank?

Switch on fuel pump

42. When a fuel priming pump is used before starting an engine, the fuel is normally delivered directly to…

the induction manifold or inlet valve port

43. What is the function of an idle cut-off valve in a piston engined aeroplane?

It inhibits the fuel flow from a discharge nozzle in the carburettor when selected

44. The mixture control regulates…

the fuel flow (Correction: Source file said “the air supply”. This is incorrect. Mixture controls fuel flow.)

45. How can the best mixture setting according to the flight manual be reached?

By reducing fuel flow with the mixture control (Correction: Source file said “reducing air”. Leaning reduces fuel.)

46. When shall a fuel inspection draining be conducted?

At latest during the pre-flight inspection before the first take-off, prior to engine start or taxi

47. The voltmeter provides an indication of…

the electric potential difference in a system in Volt V

48. What is the unit for voltage?

Volt

49. Two 12 volt 40 ampere-hour capacity batteries connected in series would result in a total capacity of…

40 ampere-hours at 24 volts

50. What are the consequences when the battery master switch is accidentally switched off during flight?

Engine operation with a magneto ignition will not be influenced

51. Can electrically operated flaps be deployed when the generator has failed?

Yes, if the battery is charged

52. What is the reason for static dischargers on aircraft?

To discharge static charging during flight

53. What is the most likely reason for the starter not turning when activated?

The master switch is not turned on

54. Which flight instrument depending on construction can be supplied by the onboard power supply?

Horizontal situation indicator

55. Electrically driven flight instruments are marked with…

EL

56. Which cylinder arrangement is commonly used on small aircrafts and motor gliders?

Horizontally opposed engine

57. The crankshaft in a four stroke piston engine…

converts a reciprocating movement into rotary motion

58. Which type of piston engine is most commonly used for low and medium power?

Four-stroke engine

59. What is likely to be the cause if the engine runs unusually rough while checking the magnetos?

Sparking plug is defective

60. The compression ratio of a piston engine is defined as the ratio of…

cylinder volume with the piston at bottom dead centre BDC to cylinder volume with the piston at top dead centre TDC

61. What type of cylinder arrangement is usually used in engines for light aircraft?

A flat engine with opposing cylinders

62. What is the correct sequence of the piston movement in a four-stroke engine?

Intake - compression - ignition - exhaust

63. What is the purpose of the cylinder fins of a combustion engine?

Cylinder cooling heat dissipation

64. Where does the condensation water converge in the tank?

At the lowest position

65. When should the drain procedure be carried out?

Before the first flight of each day

66. The highest absorbtion of humidity in fuel can be observed in which situation?

Almost empty tanks

67. What does the octane rating or fuel grade describe?

Anti-knock rating

68. Which colour does Avgas 100 LL have?

Blue

69. What is the major task of a carburettor?

To produce an ignitable airfuel mixture

70. A carburettor engine continues to run in idle with the butterfly throttle valve closed, because…

the carburettor has an independent idle run system

71. A result of carburettor icing is…

a reduction of engine power

72. Which actions shall be taken if the carburettor temperature gauge migrates into the yellow range?

Use the carburettor heat

73. In which phase of flight must the carburettor heating be switched off although carburettor icing might be expected?

During take-off

74. Under what circumstances is carburettor icing most likely to be expected?

In high humidity and temperatures between -5C and 20C

75. What is the task of cooling fins on air-cooled engine cylinders?

Quick heat transfer to the surrounding air flow by expanding the surface

76. Cylinder head temperature indication relates to…

the critical cylinder

77. Aircraft engines are fitted with cowlings…

to allow air to be ducted around the cylinder heads for cooling purposes and to reduce drag

78. Deflector plates are attached to an engine so that they…

automatically regulate the temperature

79. May fully synthetic oil in an engine be mixed with mineral oil?

According to the flight manual

80. Directly after engine start the oil pressure indication climbs beyond the green arc. This is an indication that…

the oil is still very cold viscous

81. What happens during oil filter clocking?

A bypass valve opens thus enabling the circulation to continue, debris will not be filtered

82. What are the correct measures, when the oil temperature reaches the red arc during climb?

Stop climb until the oil temperature returns to normal

83. When a magneto is switched to OFF, the switch located in its primary circuit…

is closed, grounding the circuit (Correction: Source file said “opened”. Magnetos are grounded to stop. OFF = Closed switch.)

84. Piston engines of aircraft, touring motor gliders and helicopters have…

two independent ignition systems

85. When the short circuit cable of the ignition system is broken, the engine…

continues to run

86. What is the purpose the magneto check before switching the engine off?

To check if the magnetos are still correctly connected

87. How do you call fuel mixtures with a high amount of fuel?

Rich

88. During acceleration at a constant power setting in an aircraft with a fixed pitch propeller, the engine RPM will…

increase

89. With increasing altitude the engine power of a carburettor engine decreases because the…

air density decreases

90. With increasing altitude, the power of a carburettor engine…

decreases

91. What causes a greater torque load?

A higher engine power output

92. What is the direct result of a broken or congested cylinder fin of a piston engine?

Overheating of the cylinder

93. An engine warm-up is required with combustion engines because…

maximum power can only be reached at the correct operating temperature

94. What happens when the maximum permissible engine speed rpm is exceeded?

The engine will be damaged, certain parts may even fail

95. Pre-ignition of the fuel-air mixture in a piston engine is usually associated with…

carbonised sparking plugs due to prolonged engine operation using overly rich mixtures

96. If the appropriate manual or checklist is not available to deal with an engine fire during flight, the pilot should…

close the throttle, turn the fuel off and close the cabin air intake

97. High cylinder head temperatures can be reduced in flight by…

enriching the fuel-air mixture to reduce combustion chamber temperature

98. Why may some engine manufacturers recommend a full throttle power setting for climb?

Because an interior cooling of the engine can be achieved with the extra fuel

99. What is the correct procedure during a climb when the cylinder head temperature indicator is close to the maximum limit?

Continue the climb with a higher speed or level off and continue in horizontal flight

100. Engine power rpm shall be kept low directly after engine start, because…

efficient lubrication is not immediately available

101. When shall the mixture be leaned?

At all altitudes with engine power below 75%

102. What could cause overheating of pistons, cylinders and valves?

Late ignition

103. Which of the following procedures will minimize noise after take-off?

Flying at the speed for best climb and avoiding turns during climb

104. How shall approaches be conducted to minimize noise?

Power setting as low as possible, flaps retracted and gear up as long as practical

105. A Bourdon tube is suitable for the measurement of…

pressure

106. In either a wet or a dry sump piston engine, the oil pressure sensor is located…

on the outlet side of the pressure pump

107. What may be the reason for a drop in oil pressure with a steady oil temperature?

False indication

108. Which value can be read on the manifold pressure indication when the engine is not running?

The ambient air pressure at the location of the aircraft

109. When the engine is not running, the manifold pressure gauge indicates…

barometic pressure

110. The purpose of the exhaust gas temperature EGT indicator is to monitor…

mixture adjustment

111. What does the green arc on the cylinder head temperature CHT indicator scale stand for?

Normal operating temperature

112. Which value can the pilot derive from the fuel flow gauge?

The volume of fuel used per time

113. The tachometer may be driven by…

a flexible shaft

114. How does the dynamic pressure on the aircraft change if the airspeed is doubled?

It is quadrupled

115. The term static pressure is defined as pressure…

of undisturbed airflow

116. Which of the mentioned cockpit instruments is connected to the pitot tube?

Airspeed indicator

117. What does the dynamic pressure depend on?

Air density and airflow speed squared

118. The Pitot static system is required to…

measure total and static air pressure

119. Which pressure is sensed by the Pitot tube?

Total air pressure

120. What instrument is connected with the Pitot tube?

Airspeed indicator

121. Which of the following instruments show wrong indications when the static pressure ports of the aircraft are blocked?

Altimeter, vertical speed indicator, airspeed indicator

122. The static ports of an airplane are blocked. Which instruments may show wrong indications?

Altimeter, vertical speed indicator, airspeed indicator

123. The barometric altimeter is calibrated in accordance with…

the standard atmosphere

124. QFE is the…

barometric pressure at a reference datum, typically the runway threshold of an airfield

125. When do you have to set the scale of the altimeter?

Before every flight and during the flight

126. Which is the purpose of the altimeter subscale?

To reference the altimeter reading to a predetermined level such as mean sea level, aerodrome level or pressure level 1013.25 hPa

127. The altimeter scale of the barometric altimeter has to be set…

before every flight and during a cross-country flight

128. The indication of the barometric altimeter is based on…

the preselected barometric pressure on the altimeter scale

129. In which unit is the QNH depicted?

hPa

130. What difference in altitude is shown by an altimeter, if the reference pressure scale setting is changed from 1000 hPa to 1010 hPa?

80 m more than before

131. The altitemeters reference scale is set to airfield pressure QFE. What indication is shown during the flight?

Height above airfield

132. A flight level is a…

pressure altitude

133. During a flight in colder-than-ISA air the indicated altitude is…

higher than the true altitude

134. During a flight in an air mass with a temperature equal to ISA, the indicated altitude is…

equal to the true altitude

135. If the QNH of the departure aerodrome is preselected in the barometric altimeter scale, the altimeter indication will be…

the airfield elevation above MSL (Correction: Source file said “0 ft GND”. This is wrong. QNH = Elevation.)

136. Which instrument can be affected by the hysteresis error?

Altimeter

137. The measurement of altitude is based on the change of the…

static pressure

138. A barometric altimeter always shows the altitude above…

a preselected reference level

139. Which of the following options states the working principle of a vertical speed indicator?

Measuring the present static air pressure and comparing it to the static air pressure inside a reservoir

140. A vertical speed indicator measures the difference between…

instantaneous static pressure and previous static pressure

141. Calibrated airspeed CAS equals…

indicated airspeed IAS corrected for instrument and position error

142. At higher altitudes, true airspeed TAS tends to be higher than calibrated airspeed CAS. A rough estimate of the TAS can be obtained by…

adding 2% of the CAS for every 1000 ft altitude

143. Which answer explains the abbreviation IAS?

Indicated Air Speed

144. Which of the following states the working principle of an airspeed indicator?

Dynamic air pressure is measured by the Pitot tube and converted into a speed indication by the airspeed indicator

145. The speed scale of an airspeed indicator is colour coded. The green band represents…

the normal operating range Vno

146. The airspeed indicator is based on measuring…

the difference between total pressure and static pressure

147. What is the meaning of the white arc on the airspeed indicator?

Speed range for extended flaps

148. The speed range which shall not be flown during turbulence is marked on the airspeed indicator with a…

yellow arc

149. Which answer describes the meaning of the red line of the airspeed indicator scale?

Maximum never-exceed speed

150. Equal magnetic poles…

repel each other

151. Which answer defines the term inclination?

The angle between the magnetic field lines of the earth and the horizontal plane

152. The earths magnetic field is referenced to…

the magnetic north pole

153. A magnetic compass is subject to which of the following errors?

Variation, deviation, turning and acceleration errors

154. What is the purpose of the fluid in a compass?

Damping compass movements and achieving a smooth indication

155. An aircraft in the northern hemisphere accelerates on a magnetic heading of 090. The indication of the direct reading compass…

indicates a smaller heading (Logic: Accelerate East -> Turn North -> Numbers get smaller/toward 0.)

156. An aircraft in the northern hemisphere accelerates on a magnetic heading of 270. Which reaction do you expect from the the magnetic compass indication?

An indication of approximately 300 (Logic: Accelerate West -> Turn North -> Numbers get larger/toward 360. 270 -> 300. Source file selected 240, which is incorrect.)

157. Which instruments are so-called gyro instruments?

Turn and bank indicator, artificial horizon

158. The gyro of a heading indicator continuously precesses during flight operations and should be regularly re-aligned with the magnetic compass…

when the wings are level in straight and level constant speed flight

159. The apparent drift of a gyro equals…

15h x sinlatitude

160. A directional gyro or heading indicator is susceptible to apparent drift which is caused by…

Earth rotation about its own axis

161. The bank angle of a 2-minutes circle depends on the…

TAS

162. A rate of turn indicator provides information regarding the movement around the…

vertical axis of the aircraft

163. A turn and bank or turn and slip coordinator provides information regarding…

the rate of turn and coordination, i.e. slip or skid, of the turn

164. The direction and the rate at which the airplane is turning around its vertical axis is indicated by the…

turn and bank indicator (Correction: Source file selected “directional gyro”. The DG does not indicate rate. The Turn Indicator does.)

165. What is the time needed for a complete 360 turn with a rate of turn of 3 degrees?

2 min (Correction: Source file selected 4 min. 3 deg/sec * 120s = 360 deg. 2 minutes.)

166. What does the slip indicator show?

Apparent vertical (Correction: Source file selected “Rate of turn”. The ball/slip indicator does not show rate, it shows coordination/apparent vertical.)

167. The artificial horizon belongs to the…

gyro instruments

168. Which of the following instruments has its axis of rotation vertical to the earths surface?

Artificial horizon

169. The artificial horizon…

is half gimballed, movable around all three axis and will retain its position in space as long as there is no tilting motion

170. Gyros suffer from what kinds of errors?

Gimbal errors

171. The standard directional gyro…

is generally reliable for bank and pitch angles less than 60 degrees

172. A precession error can occur with…

an artificial horizon (Note: Can also occur with Directional Gyro “wander”, but in acceleration/turning contexts, the AH precesses.)

173. Which light colour advises the pilot to the condition immediate corrective action is required?

Red

174. What does the abbreviation ADI stand for?

Attitude Director Indicator

175. A horizontal situation indicator HSI combines the information provided by…

the directional gyro and the VHF navigation receiver

176. The primary flight display PFD of an EFIS system may include which of the following information?

Attitude, heading, radial, track, approach course, flight director

177. The navigation display ND of an EFIS system may include which of the following information?

Navigational information, heading and track, bearings, wind, position

178. In case of a leakage in the exhaust air heat exchanger, allowing carbon monoxide to enter the aircraft cabin, it…

cannot be detected because it is odourless and colourless